wiseones2cents
Verified User
didn't need a total flood....only needed to flood the part where there were people living.....if you DO believe the lists in the bible were genealogies, there had only been about 20 between Adam and Noah, so how many people could there have been.....5000?.....10,000?....the could have all lived in the same valley....
Wrong! The Bible states a global flood. Man are you getting beat up in this debate.LOL
Genesis 6:17
Behold, I, even I am bringing the flood of water upon the earth, to destroy all flesh in which is the breath of life, from under heaven; everything that is on the earth shall perish.
20 families??? Ummm there were other people on the earth, where do you think Cain and Able chose brides from? Their ribs? LOL. There was also the Nephilim(probably Vikings) having babies with women of men(probably Asiatic people).
But hey! You believe Adam and Eve were the first people even though no scientific evidence supports this. They actually support the opposite,. It's called evolution.lol
according to you and the Rev. Phelps......
According to any one that can do math.LOL Add up the years and see.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Young_Earth_creationism
since there weren't two, nothing had to come first....
Ummmm but the Sumerian account states that it was The "great gods" Anu, Enlil, Ninurta, Ennugi, and Ea were sworn to secrecy about their plan to cause the flood. Not the god of the jews.lol And it was Ea who tipped Gilgamesh about the flood.
He only boarded all his own possessions including his own livestock(which is more believable then 2 of every species.lol)
so your assumptions trump the written account?....
My "assumptions" make more sense then your fairy tale beliefs. Sarah meant woman of high rank and wealthy landowners/Lords gave out land as dowry to the groom.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sarah
The Hebrew name Sarah indicates a woman of high rank and is translated as "princess" or "noblewoman".
and yet, here we are.....and Rome and Assyria are not....
And? Romans still exist too. Again, where was the god of the jews when they got slaughtered?lol
waiting for you....
The god of the jews has been waiting for me? lol Then his wait is over.

you'll have to check with the Rev. Phelps....my denomination teaches inerrancy, not infallibility....
If you agree that the Bible is not infallible and acknowledge mistakes, then you cannot really rely on it's historical accuracy now can you? I laugh when I hear the new word being used "inerrancy" that is after the infallibility label couldn't stick. lol
I found this interesting.
"'Inerrant' means there are no errors; 'infallible' means there can be no errors".[6] Yet he agrees that "modern theologians insist on redefining that word also, so that it actually says less than 'inerrancy. '" Lindsell (1978) states that "The very nature of inspiration renders the Bible infallible, which means that it cannot deceive us. It is inerrant in that it is not false, mistaken, or defective".
Inerrancy is as bullshit as infallibility it seems.LOL
Luke wrote to Greeks and followed the matriarchal line, Matthew to the Jews and followed the patriarchal line....both Mary and Joseph were from the tribe of Judah.....
Oh my GOD this guy is clueless!!! Did Shealtiel have two different fathers? In Chronicles Pedaiah is the father of Zerubabbel! In the other two books its Shealtiel!
And don't get me started about Jesus' bloodline(which is another discrepancy). Because the bloodline is followed by the male, making Mary's bloodline irrelevant. But since, Joseph is not the real father either, his bloodline would also be irrelevant.
yes, I understand why you and the Rev. Phelps want to make that argument....
I can school you AND Rev. Philips on Scripture.