Into the Night
Verified User
You can't blame your problem on anybody else, Poorboy.Perhaps you should try reading the Constitution some time rather than keeping your head up your ass, Poopiehead.
You can't blame your problem on anybody else, Poorboy.Perhaps you should try reading the Constitution some time rather than keeping your head up your ass, Poopiehead.
Lots of words that say absolutely nothing. *yawn*'You really are that stupid aren't you.
The Supreme Court said a national injunction was just fine if a class is certified as required by law. The judge certified the class as required by law and issued a national injunction.
I find it interesting that you think the USSC ruling that overturned the lower court's national injunction stopping Trump's EO preventing birthright citizenship was just a lot of words that say absolutely nothing.Lots of words that say absolutely nothing. *yawn*'
That it does. If an illegal alien is from Venezuela, they are subject to the jurisdiction of Venezuela. That IS their jurisdiction, and that''s where he will be deported to. No hearing necessary.Subject to the jurisdiction has a specific meaning and that meaning must make sense every time that phrase is used.
The jurisdiction of the slaves is the United States. That remained when they were freed.The phrase is also used in the 13th amendment. If we accept your definition then the 13th amendment makes no sense.
Not it isn't.The phrase subject to the jurisdiction thereof is also used in the 18th amendment.
Discarding the Constitution will get you nowhere, Poorboy.The 18th amendment becomes even more absurd if we accept your definition.
Nope. Go learn what this phrase means.Can you tell us how a territory can be subject to the jurisdiction thereof using your idiotic definition. Subject to the jurisdiction means that US laws apply. If US laws do not apply to someone then they can not be arrested or tried in the US.
How is it relevant?It seems you don't know what this was in response to. TD claimed no other country had birthright citizenship. I am showing his statement to be false. Do you agree with me or TD when it comes to that question?
They aren't exempt from the jurisdiction of the Federal government. That is the salient point.Are citizens of a state usually exempt from state laws?
Poor Richard Sanders said:The phrase subject to the jurisdiction thereof is also used in the 18th amendment.
And the 18th amendment - (For anyone that hasn't yet realized how big of an idiot @Into the Night is.)Not it isn't.
Because that person is subject to the jurisdiction of Texas, not California.You certainly didn't disappoint when it comes to blabbering and flailing.
Art IV applies to citizens of US states. A person that commits a crime in Texas that is found in California is to be returned to Texas to face prosecution for those crimes according to Art IV.
It says no such thing.The fourteenth amendment says a person born in California is a citizen of California.
They are subject to US law while here, but their jurisdiction is their originating nation. Illegal aliens are immediately subject to deportation.You argue that a citizen of one state or country is not subject to the laws if they retain their allegiance to where they are citizens.
Nope. They are subject to Texas law while they are there. Their jurisdiction is still that of California.That would mean a citizen of California can go to Texas, murder multiple people and not be subject to the jurisdiction of Texas since they are not a citizen of Texas under the US Constitution.
It says no such thing.Art IV says the Texas is the jurisdiction where the crime occurred.
It says no such thing.The 14th amendment says a person who lives in California is not a Texas citizen.
He is. He is subject to the jurisdiction of their originating nation. He is also subject to U.S. law, and the laws of the State and city, while visiting here.Your position is that a non citizen is not subject to the jurisdiction.
Go learn what a subject of jurisdiction is.I realize you might have to have the reading comprehension of a 12 year old to see how your logic fails so I'm sure you won't disappoint us again with your response.
It does not refer to foreigners nor apply to them. Article III creates the Supreme Court and declares what authority and powers it has. The Supreme Court has NO authority to change or judge the Constitution.Article III certainly applies to foreigners since it specifically mentions them.
AI isn't accepted in court.AI agrees but since Reservation have always been owned by the US and the Federal government can enforce law on it what difference does it really make anyway.
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Perhaps you should reread the 14th amendment.They aren't exempt from the jurisdiction of the Federal government. That is the salient point.
We aren't in court.AI isn't accepted in court.
So how is state law important. Your reading comprehension is very badPerhaps you should reread the 14th amendment.
Then answer the question of whether citizens of a state are exempt from state laws.
The reason they keep on losing is because their arguments are nothing but dumb lies and wishful thinking.
But it begs the real question here; why is it that they want to support ILLEGAL aliens and make their babies citizens?
We know why the Democratic Party wants it. They are counted in the census and increases their representation in the House under the semi-truthful belief they will be reliable Democrat voters in the future.
The courts are who decide the issue of birthright citizenship. They require actual evidence and court cases in support of a position.We aren't in court.
The lawyers will do the leg work of looking up case law. AI is plenty for the internet. You can provide a case of an Indian born off the reservation that didn't pay taxes that was granted citizenship prior to 1924 without naturalization if you want. I even take AI under considerationThe courts are who decide the issue of birthright citizenship. They require actual evidence and court cases in support of a position.
My reading comprehension seems to be fine. Did you read the full sentence?So how is state law important. Your reading comprehension is very bad
All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.
So the 14th also grants them citizenship to the state they live in. Which brings us back to why didn't that apply to native American born within the territorial limits of the US? (Prior to 1924.)My reading comprehension seems to be fine. Did you read the full sentence?
The 14th amendment makes a person a citizen of the US and a citizen of the state they are born in. Can a person who is a citizen of a state be exempt from state laws? Or does the second part of the 14th amendment come into play where Indians not taxes are not counted in the census which makes them a separate class of persons?
The next thing you need to answer is what is the jurisdiction of the state in that second sentence? What is the definition of jurisdiction in that sentence? If we accept that jurisdiction only applies to citizens of the state then a state would be free to deny equal protection to citizens of another state.
You are misrepresenting the argument. Indians that live off the reservation in property they own do pay taxes. Look up the Dawes Act of 1877 which granted land to Indians and made them citizens.The lawyers will do the leg work of looking up case law. AI is plenty for the internet. You can provide a case of an Indian born off the reservation that didn't pay taxes that was granted citizenship prior to 1924 without naturalization if you want. I even take AI under consideration
So what about the ones that didn't pay taxes and lived on Reservations? Why did the 14th make them American citizens why weren't they citizens of the state that they lived in. Why wasn't Elk of Elk v Wilkins a citizen when his case was decided by the SCOTUS in 1884 well after the 14th of 1868.You are misrepresenting the argument. Indians that live off the reservation in property they own do pay taxes. Look up the Dawes Act of 1877 which granted land to Indians and made them citizens.
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Dawes Act (1887)
EnlargeDownload Link Citation: An Act to Provide for the Allotment of Lands in Severalty to Indians on the Various Reservations (General Allotment Act or Dawes Act), Statutes at Large 24, 388-91, NADP Document A1887. View All Pages in the National Archives Catalog View Transcript Approved on...www.archives.gov
And every Indian born within the territorial limits of the United States to whom allotments shall have been made under the provisions of this act, or under any law or treaty, and every Indian born within the territorial limits of the United States who has voluntarily taken up, within said limits, his residence separate and apart from any tribe of Indians therein, and has adopted the habits of civilized life, is hereby declared to be a citizen of the United States, and is entitled to all the rights, privileges, and immunities of such citizens, whether said Indian has been or not, by birth or otherwise, a member of any tribe of Indians within the territorial limits of the United States without in any manner affecting the right of any such Indian to tribal or other property.
AI is not plenty for the internet since AI is often wrong. It doesn't verify facts. It only looks for how often something was said.