You do realize he has gone full fascist in his speeches

Go to Oxford Dictionary or Webster or Encyclopedia Britannica... and read the proper definition of Nationalism.

Zionism, Bolshevism, Nazism are forms of nationalism.

Yes, they are...so?

Dictionaries do not define words. neither does an encyclopedia. No dictionary or encyclopedia owns any word. Dictionaries are used to standard spelling and pronunciation.
 
Go to Oxford Dictionary or Webster or Encyclopedia Britannica... and read the proper definition of Nationalism.

Zionism, Bolshevism, Nazism are forms of nationalism.

Stop, just stop. Even if you are right about that you haven't shown Trump is a Nazi. I've asked you to do this more than once and you turtle.
 
This sounds like the Republicans calling the Democrats socialists and communists--completely wacko.

No, it's the goal of most Democrats to implement Marxism as much as possible. That's socialism. Most Democrats don't want communism (some do), but would rather implement fascism.
 
well they weren't fond of the Great Britain East India Company-
and they hated big banks too.

the reason is the absolute freedom of political speech given by the first amendment to individuals.

CU looks at a corp as just another organization - staffed by people -and the people's right to political speech
cannot be limited by government

The 1st amendment of the Constitution of the United States only applies to the federal government. It does not apply to the States.
Most State constitutions, however, have similar wording in them. prohibiting State governments from interfering with this right, which does not come from any document.
 
No, it's the goal of most Democrats to implement Marxism as much as possible. That's socialism. Most Democrats don't want communism (some do), but would rather implement fascism.

What industries have any Democrats advocated nationalizing (socialism)? Which Democrat wants communism?

If it is not wacko that Democrats want socialism/communism does that mean it is not wacko that Republicans want fascism?
 
The 1st amendment of the Constitution of the United States only applies to the federal government. It does not apply to the States.

That was true originally but beginning in 1925 using the due process provision of the 14th Amendment most of the rights in the Bill of Rights have been made applicable to the states. The latest right to be made applicable was the 2nd Amendment in 2010. There are still a few that do not restrict the states--3rd, jury trial in civil cases, grand jury indictment.... Making those rights applicable to the states is called the nationalization or incorporation process.
 
No they're not. The growth we have is not good, and was bolstered by a rush to get product out ahead of the tariffs.

The market's already showing the weakness of the economy. We're down for the year.
ROFL.. 3%+ GDP annual growth is happening. when is the last time that happened? not under Obama
That is fantastic growth especially when you consider the trade deficits bring down GDP..inflation down below 2% now as well


AND OBAMA not have the interest hikes Trump ! Low taxes, great job market...
 
Don't be so sure of that.

Dropping to 3.5% GDP growth is not good, particularly after shooting the demand wad in Q2 to avoid the tariffs.

The market has already started seeing the hit and is down or flat for the year.

That's because profits in Q3 didn't match those in Q1 and Q2 because of the Russia Tax Cut.

So now, large firms are reporting lowered earnings, which is causing a sell-off.

The last time we had a sell-off like this, we had the Great Bush Recession.
ROFL @ "Russian tax cut" is that the same as that elusive "Russian collusion" -in other words a fantasy?

The Bush recession was caused mostly by the housing price inflation -just the opposite is happening now.
 
What industries have any Democrats advocated nationalizing (socialism)?
Most would rather implement fascism. Obama did try to nationalize the medical insurance industry (remember Obamacare??). He nationalized General Motors for awhile too. They also nationalized most of the railroads at one time.
Which Democrat wants communism?
Surely you are aware of the few that want communism, right? (Maybe not!)
If it is not wacko that Democrats want socialism/communism does that mean it is not wacko that Republicans want fascism?
Republicans don't want fascism. Democrats do
 
That was true originally but beginning in 1925 using the due process provision of the 14th Amendment most of the rights in the Bill of Rights have been made applicable to the states.
The 14th amendment changed nothing in that regard.
The latest right to be made applicable was the 2nd Amendment in 2010.
WRONG. The 2nd amendment has always applied to the States as well as the federal government. It is also reiterated in most State constitutions.
There are still a few that do not restrict the states--3rd, jury trial in civil cases, grand jury indictment.... Making those rights applicable to the states is called the nationalization or incorporation process.
No, it's called 'ignoring the Constitution of the United States'.
 
The 14th amendment changed nothing in that regard.

WRONG. The 2nd amendment has always applied to the States as well as the federal government. It is also reiterated in most State constitutions.

No, it's called 'ignoring the Constitution of the United States'.

Incorrect. The nationalization process applied most of the Bill of Rights to the states using the due process clause of the 14th. The process occurred 1925 (speech) until 2010 (2nd).

Why do you think the 2nd always applied to the states since your first statement was that the Bill of Rights restricts the federal government only?

If you think the 2nd restricted the states before 2010 you need to look up McDonald v. Chicago because it made the 2nd applicable to the states.

This is not my opinion but basic constitutional law.
 
Incorrect. The nationalization process applied most of the Bill of Rights to the states using the due process clause of the 14th. The process occurred 1925 (speech) until 2010 (2nd).
The 14th amendment does no such thing.
Why do you think the 2nd always applied to the states since your first statement was that the Bill of Rights restricts the federal government only?
Because it describes an inherent right of Man as Man and an inherent right of a State as a State.
If you think the 2nd restricted the states before 2010 you need to look up McDonald v. Chicago because it made the 2nd applicable to the states.
I don't. The 2nd amendment has always applied to the States.
This is not my opinion but basic constitutional law.
A constitution is constitutional law. There is no other.
 
The 14th amendment does no such thing.

Because it describes an inherent right of Man as Man and an inherent right of a State as a State.

I don't. The 2nd amendment has always applied to the States.

A constitution is constitutional law. There is no other.

See McDonald v. Chicago. If the 2nd always restricted the states there was no reason for the court to apply it to the states in 2010.

If you don't think the due process clause of the 14th wasn't used to begin applying the Bill of Rights to the states you need to read Gitlow v. NY.

The Constitution does not interpret itself and must rely on court interpretations. The document does not specify which (if any) speech or press can be restricted and which cannot. It does not specify which searches are probable cause and which are not. You have missed a big hunk of constitutional law.

See Gideon v. Wainwright in which the Supreme Court ruled all states must provide an attorney to those charged with felonies by making the 6th applicable to the states.
 
See McDonald v. Chicago. If the 2nd always restricted the states there was no reason for the court to apply it to the states in 2010.
Yes there is. It has always applied to the States.
If you don't think the due process clause of the 14th wasn't used to begin applying the Bill of Rights to the states you need to read Gitlow v. NY.
No court has the authority to change the Constitution of the United States or the constitution of any State.
The Constitution does not interpret itself and must rely on court interpretations.
No court has the authority to interpret the Constitution of the United States nor of any State. See Article III.
The document does not specify which (if any) speech or press can be restricted and which cannot.
That's right. It applies to all speech.
It does not specify which searches are probable cause and which are not.
Yes it does. See Article I, and the 14th amendment.
You have missed a big hunk of constitutional law.
Only the constitution is constitutional law.
See Gideon v. Wainwright in which the Supreme Court ruled all states must provide an attorney to those charged with felonies by making the 6th applicable to the states.
The 6th already applied to the States.
The access to council specified in the 6th amendment does not require that any State or anyone else must provide an attorney. It only specifies that council must be available. The Supreme Court exceeded it's authority.
 
Yes there is. It has always applied to the States.

No court has the authority to change the Constitution of the United States or the constitution of any State.

No court has the authority to interpret the Constitution of the United States nor of any State. See Article III.

That's right. It applies to all speech.

Yes it does. See Article I, and the 14th amendment.

Only the constitution is constitutional law.

The 6th already applied to the States.
The access to council specified in the 6th amendment does not require that any State or anyone else must provide an attorney. It only specifies that council must be available. The Supreme Court exceeded it's authority.

Nothing you said is legally correct.

Since free speech (and press) applies to all, are you saying government cannot restrict liable, slander, pornography, threats, etc.?
 
Nothing you said is legally correct.

Since free speech (and press) applies to all, are you saying government cannot restrict liable, slander, pornography, threats, etc.?

Compositional error. Argument of the Stone.

The Federal government is bound by the 1st amendment. The States are not.

That said, most State constitutions carry similar wording and are bound by that wording. See your State constitution for details for your State.

You must also realize that your mind is your own. You are free to believe what you wish. No law, no imprisonment of any kind can change that. You are free to say what you will, though you are not free of the consequences of what you say. No law, no imprisonment can change that.

The 1st amendment does not gran any right. It only acknowledges the rights that are already there, and specifically prohibits the Federal government from interfering with it.

The States also recognize these rights to some degree. It is perfectly legal (if the State constitution allows for it) for a State to declare one religion or another the 'official' religion, just as they have done in the past. Nothing about that prohibits any religion, for it can't.
 
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Compositional error. Argument of the Stone.

The Federal government is bound by the 1st amendment. The States are not.

That said, most State constitutions carry similar wording and are bound by that wording. See your State constitution for details for your State.

You must also realize that your mind is your own. You are free to believe what you wish. No law, no imprisonment of any kind can change that. You are free to say what you will, though you are not free of the consequences of what you say. No law, no imprisonment can change that.

The 1st amendment does not gran any right. It only acknowledges the rights that are already there, and specifically prohibits the Federal government from interfering with it.

The States also recognize these rights to some degree. It is perfectly legal (if the State constitution allows for it) for a State to declare one religion or another the 'official' religion, just as they have done in the past. Nothing about that prohibits any religion, for it can't.

The "Appropriate law" is the 14th Amendment to the US Constitution, which forbids States from violating the rights that the Federal government is prohibited from violating.

Prior to the passage of the 14th, the protections in the Bill of Rights restricted only the actions of the Federal Government.

The US Constitution, for example, says that "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion..." This did not prevent the individual STATES from having an established religion, though (i.e. an "official State religion", and several of them did. After the passage of the 14th, though, that too became illegal.

The passages of the 14th Amendment, which bound the States to the Federal Bill of Rights, and the 17th Amendment, which called for the direct election of Senators, are the two biggest changes in the fundamental structure of the US since it was founded.

.........
While several States have such religious tests in their Constitutions, all such clauses are invalid. The 14th Amendment would make denying State elected office to an atheist a violation of his rights under the 1st Amendment to the US Constitution, and illegal. This question has been thoroughly litigated, and is settled law.

The governing case law is "Torcaso v. Watkins". Torcaso was denied a commission as a Notary in Maryland because Maryland had an oath requirement that required candidates for public office, and for certain types of commissions - including notries - to assert a belief in a "Supreme Being".

https://answers.yahoo.com/question/...HZ0aWQDBHNlYwNzYw--?qid=20081105172942AArLyFg
 
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