Why didn't Mueller charge Da Russians with 52 U.S.C. §30121

Teflon Don

I'm back baby
All along we have been told how thorough and awesome Robert Mueller is.


Now I am not a lawyer, but this OpEd does raise an interesting question. It does seem like a relevant statute that Mueller should have charged them with.

Can any of our supposed JPP legal experts explain?

https://www.americanthinker.com/blo...nd_pertinent_statures_that_were_violated.html


52 U.S.C. §30121, which covers “meddling” in U.S. elections by foreign nationals:

(a) Prohibition: It shall be unlawful for—

(1) a foreign national, directly or indirectly, to make—

(A) a contribution or donation of money or other thing of value, or to make an express or implied promise to make a contribution or donation, in connection with a Federal, State, or local election;

(B) a contribution or donation to a committee of a political party; or

(C) an expenditure, independent expenditure, or disbursement for an electioneering communication (within the meaning of section 30104(f)(3) of this title); or

(2) a person to solicit, accept, or receive a contribution or donation described in subparagraph (A) or (B) of paragraph (1) from a foreign national.
 
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