House passes bill codifying same-sex marriage, with Republicans joining Democ

gfm7175 said:
Do your own homework. I told you precisely where to look.
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The Constitution specifically grants Congress its most important power — the authority to make laws. A BILL, or proposed law, only becomes a law after both the House of Representatives and the Senate have approved it in the same form.

Suck on that, my dear. Have you ever been right on anything?
 
Poor Richard Saunders said:
Except you just argued that some marriages would only exist in some states and would cease to be if the couple moved to another state.
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I made no such argument. You are making schiff up again. Try to address what I actually say.

Poor Richard Saunders said:
The only reasons divorce exists in all states is because of Supreme Court ruling in the Williams v N Carolina that forced N Carolina to recognize divorce from other states.
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It existed in all states before that ruling.

Poor Richard Saunders said:
If you allow some states to not recognize the marriage from another state then you have created a position where someone could move to another state, not be married so they are free to remarry then move back to the first state and be guilty of bigamy.
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I made no such argument. Try to address what I actually say.
 
floridafan said:
The Constitution specifically grants Congress its most important power — the authority to make laws. A BILL, or proposed law, only becomes a law after both the House of Representatives and the Senate have approved it in the same form.
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... IN PERSUANCE OF THE CONSTITUTION. That's why I noted that you should take a look at Article 6.

... Congress has specific powers, enumerated in Article 1 Section 8. That's why I mentioned that part of the Constitution. They cannot legislate beyond their bounds.

floridafan said:
Suck on that, my dear. Have you ever been right on anything?
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A question that you should be asking yourself...
 
gfm7175 said:
I made no such argument. You are making schiff up again. Try to address what I actually say.


It existed in all states before that ruling.


I made no such argument. Try to address what I actually say.
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Claiming your argument isn't what it actually is, is nothing but denial on your part. Before Williams v N Carolina a state could refuse to recognize a divorce from another state. Arguing that a state can not allow gay marriages is one of two things on your part. Either the state has to recognize gay marriages from other states in which case they haven't banned gay marriage at all since they would be forced to give all the marriage benefits to gay couples or they refuse to recognize gay marriages from other states and therefore they are violating the full faith and credit clause.
 
gfm7175 said:
... IN PERSUANCE OF THE CONSTITUTION. That's why I noted that you should take a look at Article 6.

... Congress has specific powers, enumerated in Article 1 Section 8. That's why I mentioned that part of the Constitution. They cannot legislate beyond their bounds.


A question that you should be asking yourself...
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Perhaps you are the one that needs to read the Constitution....
I suggest you read Art 1 Section 10...


No State shall ... pass any Law impairing the Obligation of Contracts ...


Marriage is a contract.
 
gfm7175 said:
The Constitution of the United States of America.

See Article 1, Section 8. (says what the specific enumerated powers of Congress are)
See Article 6. (says how laws shall be made in the US)
See Article 7. (says that the States, collectively, own the Constitution)
See Amendment 10. (says that powers not delegated to the US by the Constitution (nor prohibited by it to the States) belong to the States)
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ROFLMAO...
And yet you seem to ignore all the parts that amend what you are claiming has to be true.

Let's examine this..
If a gay married couple moves to a state that has banned gay marriage can they still get a divorce in that state?
How can a state grant a divorce for a couple that can't get married in that state?
If they treat one married couple differently from another couple, why do you think the state isn't bound by the equal protection clause? Are you claiming the 14th amendment doesn't exist?
 
Poor Richard Saunders said:
Claiming your argument isn't what it actually is, is nothing but denial on your part. Before Williams v N Carolina a state could refuse to recognize a divorce from another state. Arguing that a state can not allow gay marriages is one of two things on your part. Either the state has to recognize gay marriages from other states in which case they haven't banned gay marriage at all since they would be forced to give all the marriage benefits to gay couples or they refuse to recognize gay marriages from other states and therefore they are violating the full faith and credit clause.
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There is no such thing as "gay marriage", dude. It doesn't exist.
 
gfm7175 said:
I would have voted with the opposition.

There is no such thing as "gay marriage", and this is a State level issue, not a federal one.
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Of course you would, Sybil. You're effing nutz.

It's a 14th Amendment Equal Protection Clause issue. If you were sane, you'd know what I mean. :thup:
 
gfm7175 said:
Hmmmm, I guess nobody has the power to make marriage laws then, eh? ;)
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LOL. Ok. If you want to play stupid, we can all admit you play it very well.

No state can impair the obligation of a contract signed in another state. That means they can't interfere with a marriage from another state or nullify that marriage. That means that a resident of a state can get married in another state and both states have to recognize the marriage.
 
Poor Richard Saunders said:
ROFLMAO...
And yet you seem to ignore all the parts that amend what you are claiming has to be true.
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LOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOL you seem to think that nobody has the power to make laws about marriage hahahahahahahahahahaha too funny!

Poor Richard Saunders said:
Let's examine this..
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This has already been examined in this thread. I've already told you where in the Constitution to look and why to look there. You seem to forget (or otherwise wish to ignore) that Congress has limited lawmaking powers (that are specifically enumerated in Article 1 Section 8).

Poor Richard Saunders said:
If a gay married couple moves to a state that has banned gay marriage can they still get a divorce in that state?
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There is no such thing as a "gay married couple" or "gay marriage". There is no 'divorce' unless there is first a marriage. Pointless question.

Poor Richard Saunders said:
How can a state grant a divorce for a couple that can't get married in that state?
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There is no such thing as 'divorce' unless a marriage exists from which to 'divorce' from. ANOTHER pointless question on your part.

Poor Richard Saunders said:
If they treat one married couple differently from another couple, why do you think the state isn't bound by the equal protection clause?
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They aren't doing so, so your question is irrelevant.

Poor Richard Saunders said:
Are you claiming the 14th amendment doesn't exist?
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No. It exists, but it is not being violated here.
 
gfm7175 said:
LOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOL you seem to think that nobody has the power to make laws about marriage hahahahahahahahahahaha too funny!


This has already been examined in this thread. I've already told you where in the Constitution to look and why to look there. You seem to forget (or otherwise wish to ignore) that Congress has limited lawmaking powers (that are specifically enumerated in Article 1 Section 8).


There is no such thing as a "gay married couple" or "gay marriage". There is no 'divorce' unless there is first a marriage. Pointless question.


There is no such thing as 'divorce' unless a marriage exists from which to 'divorce' from. ANOTHER pointless question on your part.


They aren't doing so, so your question is irrelevant.


No. It exists, but it is not being violated here.
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There is no such thing as a "Christian married couple" or "Christian marriage".
 
Dutch Uncle said:
Of course you would, Sybil. You're effing nutz.

It's a 14th Amendment Equal Protection Clause issue. If you were sane, you'd know what I mean. :thup:
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Nope. There is no 14th Amendment issue here.

However, the following Constitution sections are relevant here:

Article 1 Section 8
Article 6
Article 7
Amendment 10
 
gfm7175 said:
LOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOL you seem to think that nobody has the power to make laws about marriage hahahahahahahahahahaha too funny!
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And you are playing stupid very well. Not being able to impair a contract does not mean you can't make one.

This has already been examined in this thread. I've already told you where in the Constitution to look and why to look there. You seem to forget (or otherwise wish to ignore) that Congress has limited lawmaking powers (that are specifically enumerated in Article 1 Section 8).
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You seem to have missed the last part of Section 8 where it says - To make all Laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into Execution the foregoing Powers, and all other Powers vested by this Constitution in the Government of the United States, or in any Department or Officer thereof.

There is no such thing as a "gay married couple" or "gay marriage". There is no 'divorce' unless there is first a marriage. Pointless question.
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Stupid response on your part.


There is no such thing as 'divorce' unless a marriage exists from which to 'divorce' from. ANOTHER pointless question on your part.
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Another stupid response on your part.


They aren't doing so, so your question is irrelevant.
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What you are proposing is that they can treat them differently.

No. It exists, but it is not being violated here.
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It is being violated the minute a married couple's rights are being treated differently in one state compared to another. Your attempt to run away from your argument is noted. Are you now claiming you never said states should decide the issue of "same-sex marriage?"
 
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