Just for fun, let's reverse the roles of history and see how it plays out:
Suppose black slaves were used on the picket lines to unionize and get better working conditions for the workers up north. Suppose hundreds of thousands of these blacks were killed in the efforts, and their families were left destitute. And suppose 150 years later, descendents of those black freedom fighters were still being blamed for the poor working conditions endured by the white northern workers.
That's the basic formula in place. So it should make sense working either way, yet it doesn't. Does it?
This is doesn't make sense. It isn't a valid comparison.