millions-of-illegals-probably-did-vote-in-2016
Probably did vote? Convincing evidence.
millions-of-illegals-probably-did-vote-in-2016
This is not how campaigns operate. Trump's campaign made extensive use of polls, technology, and models based on turnout figures.
His visits to CA were primarily to raise money.
My reference was to illegal immigrants voting. Almost all your articles refer to "non-citizens" (not illegals) and all those numbers were very small. The San Francisco article says illegals are eligible to vote in school board elections but not federal elections. Those articles specifically referring to illegals gave no evidence, just somebody speculating. The Kansas example used a headline that said "illegal" but the article actually said non-citizen and it was only prosecuting one person. Trump's claim of 3 million was pure trash.
Using sources such as the Daily Caller are not credible.
There are no "fake "polls. Some are better than others like 538. Some are weaker like Gallup which is typically 7 points off, We know in what direction.
You are not reading your own articles. For example, the David Garcia Bebek of Peru says:
"In an interview Wednesday afternoon, Kobach said officials learned of the voter fraud after Bebek became a naturalized citizen of the U.S. in February. At the naturalization ceremony, the new citizens were encouraged to register to vote."
If he was a naturalized citizen he had to be here legally or he would not have been eligible for citizenship. So, a non-citizen, not an illegal immigrant.
All immigrants here legally are non-citizens but not illegals. We can find several cases of non-citizens who are registered and a relatively small number of them actually vote. My references have all been about proof of illegals voting. Still no examples--even if you come up with a few cases that is a far cry from 3 million.
Blind faith in authority includes believing any crazy lies told by Trump--more lies from the DC swamp.
This from the guy that advocates creating an oligarchy out of the Supreme Court.
There is no such evidence.

The sources you cited had very few cases of people voting illegally.


I'm not for creating anything. I am happy with the Supreme Court's current constitutional role that has existed from the beginning of the republic.
The Supreme Court is not authorized to interpret or change the Constitution. You cannot make the Supreme Court an oligarchy. You are advocating tyranny.
You are trying to make it one. You advocate tyranny.Is is not an oligarchy any more than the legislative or executive branches are oligarchies.
WRONG. They all must conform to the Constitution of the United States.They all have checks and balances to prevent abuse.
The Supreme Court does not have authority to interpret or change the Constitution of the United States.One of those checks is the federal court's power of judicial review.
What you are arguing for is tyranny, putting the Supreme Court above the Constitution.Without it, the legislative and executive branches could be tyrannical.
Trump has broken no law and is in complete compliance of the Constitution of the United States with the exception of attempting to ban bumpstocks (a legal accessory to a weapon). The court has not addressed this order.Obama and Trump's executive orders are examples of abuse of power stopped by the courts.
Interpreting and striking down any law not in compliance with the Constitution is in their purview.Striking down D. C. laws prohibiting handguns is an example of check protecting our rights.
The do not have that authority.Soon they will rule on the power of states to require electors to support the candidate winning the popular vote in that state.
Irrelevant. They do not have that authority.Any predictions?
You are trying to make it one. You advocate tyranny.
Interpreting and striking down any law not in compliance with the Constitution is in their purview.
The do not have that authority.
Lie. You wish to make the Supreme Court an oligarchy. Sorry dude, you cannot destroy the Constitution that way.No, I accept the role of the Supreme Court since the beginning of the republic. I do not advocate anything different.
No, it doesn't. Only the States have the authority to interpret the Supreme Court has NONE.Exactly. And to determine whether a law is in compliance with the Constitution requires the court to interpret the meaning of the Constitution.
That and how the Constitution is empowered by the States.You claim the words of the Constitution tell us everything we need to know;
I do not claim this power. Congress h as that power. See Article I.yet, you claim the power to regulate naturalization includes the power to regulate immigration.
Immigration is part of naturalization, dumbass.Those words and powers are clearly not written in the Constitution,
Immigration is part of naturalization, dumbass.so you are making an interpretation that is not there under the guise that it was "intended."
Also authorized in Article IV.Same applies to the states' republican form of government provision.
They don't get a choice. They MUST conform to the Constitution. I am adding nothing. YOU are still trying to ignore the Constitution. You advocate tyranny.The courts agree with you on that interpretation, but you are both adding words and powers not included.
The Supreme Court does not have authority to interpret or change the Constitution.The court does that all the time with other cases
They do not have power to change the Constitution. Immigration is part of naturalization, dumbass.yet you deny them that power even when you accept it for immigration.
The Supreme Court does not have power to interpret or change the Constitution.But they have already heard the case and will issue the ruling soon.
They do not have to follow anything that does not conform to the Constitution of the United States.That decision will be followed by all the states.
Immigration is law in the United States. See Article I.The authority you claim the court does not have (except immigration) is recognized and followed as law in the U. S.
No, YOU are wrong.Your only argument is that they are "wrong."
I do not claim this power. Congress h as that power. See Article I.
Immigration is part of naturalization, dumbass.
Not according to the Constitution.
Where in the provision below is immigration included as a part of naturalization?
"To establish an uniform Rule of Naturalization, and uniform Laws on the subject of Bankruptcies throughout the United States;"
Nowhere. Naturalization is a separate issue than immigration and Congress had naturalization laws early in our history but not immigration laws.
Claiming immigration is part of naturalization is doing exactly what you claim the courts cannot do---interpret the Constitution.
You deny powers you dislike and make up powers you want the government to have.
Even when the courts have upheld immigration laws they did not use the naturalization clause as the basis.
Immigration is part of naturalization, dumbass. The Supreme Court does not have authority to interpret or change the Constitution.
And neither do you by claiming immigration is part of naturalization when it clearly is not included. What is the evidence for your uninformed claim?
"To establish an uniform Rule of Naturalization, and uniform Laws on the subject of Bankruptcies throughout the United States;"
You are proving understanding the Constitution requires interpretation. You are interpreting naturalization to include immigration (but without evidence) and giving Congress a power not specifically delegated.
Immigration of part of naturalization in any country, dumbass.
Immigration of part of naturalization in any country, dumbass.But not in our Constitution. You've read the constitution of every country? Wow.
The two go hand in hand, dumbass. Go learn English.You still give us no source for your interpretation.
What right to privacy?That must mean the right to privacy is part of the other rights in the 9th Amendment,
Nope. The 14th amendment changed nothing concerning that.and that the 14th due process clause applied most of the Bill of Rights to the states.
No, YOU are putting things in there that aren't there...again. YOU are still attempting to change the Constitution.Those are not in the Constitution, either, but if we can claim one is part of the other, you are doing the same thing the Supreme Court has been doing for years--interpreting the Constitution.
Not possible. Go learn English.That proves the words of the Constitution are not enough to interpret the meaning you are adding words and powers to the Constitution's specific language. Naturalization laws are separate from immigration laws.
The Court does not have authority to interpret or change the Constitution. Only the States do.What you really mean is that you think the court's interpretation of the Constitution is wrong on almost all legal decisions and you do not accept current constitution law.
Inversion fallacy. That is YOU. It is YOU that wants to create an oligarchy that is above the law.You do not believe in the rule of law.
What right to privacy?