but assault vehicles are still legal. You want to drive 150 mph and kill entire families, MD says go for it.
So MD has a speed limit of 150? I did not know that. Think you would get a ticket and lose your license?
but assault vehicles are still legal. You want to drive 150 mph and kill entire families, MD says go for it.
but assault vehicles are still legal. You want to drive 150 mph and kill entire families, MD says go for it.
Exactly. Liberal won't ban cars that have killed people.
FYI: Real "Assault rifles have been banned for decades." Simply because a weapon looks like a combat weapon does not make it a combat weapon. Name one state in the us where fully auto military weapons are legal.....without being totally registered with the federal government in order to own a pre 1985 weapon? And just how many of these weapons have been responsible for mass murders? IDIOTS!Ahh, states rights vs. federal gov't rulings...interesting.
https://www.nbcnews.com/news/us-new...amendment-federal-appeals-court-rules-n724106
Ahh, states rights vs. federal gov't rulings...interesting.
https://www.nbcnews.com/news/us-new...amendment-federal-appeals-court-rules-n724106
It's a laughable ruling that hinges entirely on an egregiously disingenuous reading of Heller's, "and the like" . . .
Heller's statement that "if weapons that are most useful in military service—M-16 rifles and the like—may be banned, . . . " isn't comparing appearances, accessories or furniture, (collapsible stocks, flash hiders, pistol grips etc), it is comparing the full-auto M-16 to other full-auto guns that all fall under Title II of NFA-34. The thing that those guns share, making them both "bannable" and thus "like" each other, is an auto-sear -- the capability of selective or full-auto fire -- NOT collapsible stocks, barrel shrouds and flash hiders. NONE of those things are mentioned in NFA-34; NONE of those things are of any interest in determining a Title II "banned" arm from a legal semi-auto.
Leftist stupidity on parade . . .
It does
The term was applied, then as now, to weapons that were not specifically designed for military use and were not employed in a military capacity.
https://www.law.cornell.edu/supct/html/07-290.ZO.html
Perhaps."Maryland can still ban your “assault weapon”." d7
What's being discussed/rebutted is the narrow definition of "bear arms" argued by DC. He isn't making a statement on the scope of the right, just the incorrectness of DC's argument that "bear" limits the right to just organized militia use.
This is the part of Heller that is totally unnecessary, the textual analysis. Scalia should have just cited long-standing SCOTUS precedent in response to DC, that the right to arms isn't granted by the 2nd Amendment thus it is not in any manner dependent upon any words in the Constitution for its existence -- which he does a couple paragraphs later in (c).
By simple I hope you mean utterly simple-minded. It was good for a laugh. He is amused by the "frothing" in the dissent; I'm willing to be patient for the great frothing of liberals the next time SCOTUS hears a gun case.
Can you cite that? I thought I read that as well...
Can you cite that? I thought I read that as well...
I’ll bite ... Because it was politically expedient at that moment in our history. And when it is more politically expedient to ban handguns they’ll be next.
Guess what, moron. Maryland can still ban your “assault weapon”.
Historically, there is only one conclusion as to the meaning of the term “bear arms” at the time if the writing of the Constitution. When someone had to “bear arms”, they did so in the context of a military situation. They did not “bear arms” to go out and shoot dinner.
“dangerous and unusual weapons” not in common use at the time, such as M-16 rifles and other firearms that are most useful in military service. - - - Heller
Maryland law does not bind me; neither does the 4th Circuit.
The right is not created or granted or given by the 2ndA thus the right does not in any manner depend on words for its existence.
Either way, the right is the citizen's to be exercised without any consideration of militia enrolment status. Read Aymette, every man has the right to keep and bear (when circumstances demand) the arms of the type usually employed in civilized warfare, that constitute the ordinary military equipment. If the citizen has these arms in his hands, he is able to protect the public liberty, to keep in awe those who are in power, and to maintain the supremacy of the laws and the constitution and repel any encroachments upon his and his neighbors rights by those in authority, because . . . he and his neighbors are capable of acting in concert and prepared in the best possible manner to act together in a body -- without permission or license from the usurpers-- to re-secure their liberties.
That my dear statist authoritarian friend, is the right to "bear" arms . . . And the state I live in recognizes it:
The right of the citizens to bear arms in defense of themselves and the State shall not be questioned.
Brilliant retort, sailor! Oh, how can I hope to stand against such an onslaught of logical brilliance? (note: this is sarcasm, in case you didn't know).![]()
The law of the land is Heller AND Miller the latter of which specifically states weapons military utility are unequivocally protected.
Wrong again, moron.
Scalia on Heller:
“Nothing in our opinion should be taken to cast doubt on longstanding prohibitions on the possession of firearms by felons and the mentally ill, or laws forbidding the carrying of firearms in sensitive places such as schools and government buildings, or laws imposing conditions and qualifications on the commercial sale of arms.”
The late justice also more generally offered the belief that “like most rights, the right secured by the Second Amendment is not unlimited.” It is “not a right to keep and carry any weapon whatsoever in any manner whatsoever and for whatever purpose.”
QUESTION:
Is there a fundamental error in the notion that there should be no weapons ban or restriction? If I want an extensive H-bomb * arsenal, should government have the authority to restrict or deny me it?
If no, then allowing some guns while denying others would seem to exceed legitimate government authority.
But as soon as we agree as a People that government has the authority to prevent private ownership of daisy-cutters, canons, and other such matériel
then it becomes a simple quibble about where we draw the line. For once we accept that government authority we are already on the slippery slope.
* not A-bomb, H-bomb, that's the kind that makes the loud noise
This is a question that really doesn't desreve all the attention it gets. It is easily answered by just applying the most fundamental (and important) principles of the Constitution, that of conferred powers and retained rights.
The Constitution is a charter of strictly defined (thus limited) conferred powers, powers that "We the People" have granted to government so it can perform certain duties "We the People" have assigned to it.
In this instance, it is the power to declare war and raise and support and provide for an army and navy that have been surrendered by "We the People" and governs the question you ask. This power includes the supreme powers to acquire, possess and deploy the weapons of wide scale and indiscriminate warfare.
These intermingled principles of conferred powers and retained rights demands that those powers/interests that "We the People" have surrendered, we can no longer claim as a right.
This principle is directly evident in the Constitution as it pertains to weapons of war owned by private citizens. The most devastating weapon of the day were armed ships owned by Privateers but once the Revolutionary War was over, control over the ownership, maintenance and use of these weapons was granted to Congress in Art I, § 8, cl. 11. The same principle behind that grant of power can be applied today, to justify and sustain modern laws prohibiting citizens from owning modern weapons of open, indiscriminate warfare like RPG's, missiles, fighter jets and yes, even NBC WMD's . . .
.