how is there any differential?
person A has X amount of income before income taxes are assessed
person B has Y amount of income before income taxes are assessed and it is significantly less than the income of person A.
person A has HIS income taxed at a high marginal rate.
person B has his income taxed at a low marginal rate, or even pays no taxes.
what will happen to the difference between those two incomes after those taxes are assessed?
will it remain exactly the same, will it be a larger number or will it be a smaller number?
Where do you come up with this differential crap anyway? I thought the argument was reducing income inequality? How would that occur using your "simple" math? Would income inequality really be reduced? Wouldn't the rich person still be making the SAME income?
Damn you are one dumb leftist. No wonder you voted for the most inept, inexperienced, arrogant buffoon to inhabit the White House; you epitomize the low information voter.
Dunce.