Why ask a stupid ass question when history demonstrates the fact that the GOP has readily accepted the reality of the Electoral College v. Popular vote defeat? Only radicals cry foul when they lose because they are on the wrong side of the RULE OF LAW.
The reality of history points out the fact that the POPULAR vote was never even considered until 1824....almost 50 years after the US declared its independence. And there has only been one example in US history were a candidate won the "MAJORITY" of the popular yet lost the election because of the EC vote....that was in 1876.
FYI: CLINTON did not win the majority of the popular vote...she won a plurality of the votes.
But to answer your question of what would the GOP do if there was SUSPECT that cheating was involved with both the popular vote and the EC? Just look to the 1960 election Kennedy v. Nixon. Nixon did not choose to go to court the way Al Gore did in 2000 when there was obvious challenges that existed with the actual vote in consideration of the POPULAR VOTE and the EC VOTE.....why? Because Kennedy won the EC vote and the popular vote was and remains "moot" to any presidential election. FYI: Nixon won the "majority"...of the states, yet decided not to pursue legal actions but accepted the results for "the good of the nation". Nixon lost because of 14 "un-pledged" southern electors who cast their votes for a 3rd candidate. A legal challenge COULD have been launched and went on for months if not years in the court system...but again, THE GOP stepped aside for the good of the nation....unlike Gore in 2000 or the DNC in 2016 who are still bitching about the election....who threatened EC electors and their families....who demanded recount after recount in states they knew they did not win...etc.
So you can stick your biased and bigoted HYPOTHETICAL up your own parties rear end.
Last edited by Ralph; 05-06-2017 at 09:18 AM.
yes she did win the majority of votes idiot
three million more living breathing American human votes
"Government is force by definition and corruption by nature. The bigger the government, the greater the force and the greater the corruption."
You just confirmed the obvious.....your ignorance to reality and factual history. Simply prove that the second place candidate (Clinton) received more than 50% of the votes cast. Its a simple thing to prove if she won the majority of the votes cast. She DID NOT receive a majority vote but came in at 48%, far removed from the 50% required to have a majority. The only "majority" that matters in the presidential election is that found in the Electoral College. Are all dimwits that ignorant concerning reality, history and math? Of course they are or they would not be suggesting that 48% of 100% is a majority.
Last edited by Ralph; 05-06-2017 at 02:52 PM.
clinton had more Americans wanting her to be president
three million living breathing humans
This has never happened, and will never happen. The National Republican/Whig and Republican candidate has defeated the Democratic candidate without winning the popular vote four times (1824, 1888, 2000, and 2016). Additionally, the Federalists were able to ensure that the less evil Democrat was elected in 1800. The Constitution is biased against Democrats in elections.
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CFM (05-06-2017)
"It [the draft] is duty rather than slavery. I part with the author on the caviler idea that individual freedom (whatever that may be to the person) leads to nirvana, anyone older that 12 knows that is BS."
-(Midcan5)
"Allow me to masturbate my patriotism furiously and publicly at this opportunity."
-(Ib1yysguy)
"There is no 'equal opportunity' today unless the government makes it so."
-(apple0154 )
"abortion is not killing Its birth control"
-(Desh)
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