There was no "one man, one vote" in the U. S. Senate or in the electoral college, so I'm not sure it was a founding principle. The House was not required to elect members by districts or have an equal number of voters.
I think most of those Supreme Court cases in the 1960's based the "one man one vote" on the equal protection clause of the 14th amendment which was not part of the founding principles; and, most of the decisions applied to state actions (since the 14th limited states). They also may have used the Article 4 requirement to guarantee a republican form of government to all the states. I haven't looked at that stuff in a few years.
Someone will call us sexist for the one "man" thing.
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